Could the difference be something as simple as, the first source cited (pubmed) was only looking at hospitalized C19 patients, where as the Israeli study was looking at all unvaccinated people who had C19? Only a small percent of people who get C19 are/were hospitalized, and it would make sense that if you are hospitalized you are having a serious complication. Add in the fact that someone could have been admitted to the hospital for a primary concern of a heart issue, only to be tested on admittance to find an incidental case of C19 - the “admitted for” vs “admitted with” issue that skewed all of the hospitalization numbers. I’m not saying I don’t think there is anything to see here, I am just wondering if this could explain the discrepancy?
1) The original COVID variant was more dangerous - this is the variant whose spike is still used in the vaccines by the way, even the bivalents
2) The vaccine makes the virus more dangerous by making you immunotolerant to it.
I’d like to see a study of how Omicron affects the unvaccinated but it’s all either pre-vaccine during the original variant or post-vaccine without taking vaccination status into account. I’m an unvaxxed Omicron survivor so it would help my anxiety to know if I’m not at the same risk for heart and other problems.
Even a light level of research on the WEF reveals a dark plan being carried out.
Could the difference be something as simple as, the first source cited (pubmed) was only looking at hospitalized C19 patients, where as the Israeli study was looking at all unvaccinated people who had C19? Only a small percent of people who get C19 are/were hospitalized, and it would make sense that if you are hospitalized you are having a serious complication. Add in the fact that someone could have been admitted to the hospital for a primary concern of a heart issue, only to be tested on admittance to find an incidental case of C19 - the “admitted for” vs “admitted with” issue that skewed all of the hospitalization numbers. I’m not saying I don’t think there is anything to see here, I am just wondering if this could explain the discrepancy?
I think it’s two things:
1) The original COVID variant was more dangerous - this is the variant whose spike is still used in the vaccines by the way, even the bivalents
2) The vaccine makes the virus more dangerous by making you immunotolerant to it.
I’d like to see a study of how Omicron affects the unvaccinated but it’s all either pre-vaccine during the original variant or post-vaccine without taking vaccination status into account. I’m an unvaxxed Omicron survivor so it would help my anxiety to know if I’m not at the same risk for heart and other problems.
Item 3 the truth but at lower levels undertaken by those in groups 1 & 2.